Peter Woodfork oversees umpiring for MLB. He issued a statement on triple play in the Padres/Dodgers game on Sunday:
“After review and discussion with the umpire, we have determined that the call itself of a fair ball was correct. However, while making the call, there was an incorrect mechanic, which appeared to confuse San Diego’s base runners. At no time did the umpire verbally kill the play on the field. After reviewing the entire situation following the game, the umpire realizes his hands were in an exaggerated upward appearance similar to a call that would indicate a dead ball. While we all agree that it was a fair ball that did not hit the batter, the umpire recognizes that the proper mechanic was not executed as he tried to avoid the catcher.”
Watching the replay at the time, it seemed that the ball never hit the batter and eventually rolled fair. I will say that the Padres would have been better off running if they were not sure of the call. There would be no harm running if the ball was actually foul.
Hat tip, Gaslamp Ball.
The thing is, the Padres were sure. They saw the umpire signal foul ball.
What exactly is the rule on this? I couldn’t find it in the official MLB rules. Is there a rule saying that as soon as an umpire calls a ball foul, the play is over? Or does the rule say that the play is over when the ball *is* stopped (or touches a player) in foul territory (or is foul after passing first or third, or whatever)?
Where is the rule on this question, is what I’m asking.
James » There is an umpires rule book, which is designed not just for the rules of the game, but for all the nuances the ump deals with. I assume it’s in there. The official rule book just describes what is or is not a foul ball. (See rule 2)